If $L$ is a binary language (that is, $L \subseteq \Sigma = \{0,1\}^∗$) and $\overline{L}$ is the complement of $L$:
How can I show that if $L \in \mathsf P$, then $\overline{L} \in \mathsf P$ as well?
Asked By : Calum Murray
Answered By : saadtaame
Suppose you have an algorithm that decides membership in $L$ in polynomial time (by assumption since it's in $P$). You can easily write an algorithm that uses the previous one for deciding membership in $\bar L$ and prove that it takes polynomial time.
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Question Source : http://cs.stackexchange.com/questions/10257
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