Can the set of states Q be empty by definition?
I was wondering about this question when doing exercises in the pumping lemma for finite automaton.
Asked By : user8272
Answered By : Shaull
In a DFA - no, because the definition includes a single initial state $q_0$, which means that $q_0\in Q$, and therefore $Q\neq \emptyset$.
In an NFA, however, this is indeed possible.
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Question Source : http://cs.stackexchange.com/questions/12166
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