Is it possible to have a decision problem $A$ which belongs to P and reduce it to a decision problem $B$ which belongs to NP, i.e. $A \leq_{\mathrm{p}} B$, where $A$ belongs to P, $B$ belongs to NP?
Asked By : user3603634
Answered By : Alexey Romanov
Of course. Just take B=A, since every P problem is in NP.
Best Answer from StackOverflow
Question Source : http://cs.stackexchange.com/questions/33624
0 comments:
Post a Comment
Let us know your responses and feedback